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Old 07-26-2009, 08:05 PM   #1
longi
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Default Biyang OD8-3 Tube Screamer clone chips

I just bought one of these pedasl and it's pretty darned good, however i'm not sure of the difference the 3 different chips that come with it. Does anybody know the difference between them is? They are...JRC4558, NE5532, TL072
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Old 07-26-2009, 09:04 PM   #2
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They're all dual op-amps. The NE5532 has a much lower input impedance and may - may sound less bright.

Thing about op-amps, though, was that they were designed so that circuits using them work the same regardless of the actual op-amp used.
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Old 07-26-2009, 09:50 PM   #3
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So would I be right in thinking there should be no tonal difference then? Which is probably why I can't the difference between the 3 chips!
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Old 07-26-2009, 09:53 PM   #4
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The 5532 sounds different in some applications but I'd not expect any differences between them in a TS type.

It'd be interesting to get three identical pedals, check they sound the same with the same chip, then swap the chip in just one and retest having shuffled them.
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Old 07-26-2009, 11:48 PM   #5
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i noticed a difference in mine. In very broad terms, the jrc was the most tubescreamery, with the biggest mid hump, the NEwhatever was warmer but without as much of the mid hump, and the tl072 was the most modern, least compressed-sounding, a bit brighter.

As sporky says (we went over this before in a previous thread, if you want to do a search- i think it might have been about the od7- if you can't find it give me a shout and I'm sure i can find it, just i'm in a bit of a rush to get offline at the moment), you'd want to do a much better, fairer test to be absolutely sure, but I definitely noticed a difference in my pedal.

EDIT: just to go by sporky's point- is "work the same" the same as "sound the same", though? I know guitarists are always saying that electronics boffins claim that things will sound the same, but that they can hear a difference. Of course, it could be psychological
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Old 07-27-2009, 07:11 PM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dave_Mc View Post
EDIT: just to go by sporky's point- is "work the same" the same as "sound the same", though?
Yes.

If they work the same they sound the same, because the sound is a product solely of how the device works. There's no magic involved.

And, of course, you can measure much smaller changes than you can hear.
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Old 07-27-2009, 11:05 PM   #7
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oh yeah, i'm certainly not suggesting that there's any magic involved, i'm a scientist when it comes to all that kind of stuff. I mean more you know the way if you ask an engineer/electronics buff who doesn't play guitar, they'll claim that two things sound the same when most guitarists would agree that they don't.

I guess, you know the way some people will swear blind that the only thing affecting the tone of a guitar is the pickups? that kind of thing.
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Old 07-27-2009, 11:09 PM   #8
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I think it's also hard for most people to accurately test such things. If you don't have two identical pedals and someone willing to play along you can't free yourself of preconceptions and rogue psychoacoustic effects.
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Old 07-28-2009, 06:01 PM   #9
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yeah, of course. As i said in the previous test, I tried to do as fair a test as i could, and remove as much of the psychology as possible, but it's still far from perfect (and why they do double blind trials in medical tests). I thought the difference was sufficiently big that it wasn't psychological- but of course there's no way I can say that for sure, or rule out psychology.
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Old 07-29-2009, 08:26 PM   #10
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Yup, I reckon the only way to tell is have have 3 and play them back to back, or maybe my ears just ain't what they were!!
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